Short answer: Because men who have sex with men engage in anal sex more often than heterosexual people do, and anal sex is much more likely to transmit HIV.Carnie wrote:Can somebody please explain to me why it is that men who have sex with men are more likely to have STDs than hetrosexual people who have an equal amount of sex (in a time later than the 1970s)?
Carnie wrote:Nepene wrote:The average person isn't reasonably expected to know the statistics for at risk demographics, beyond drug users and men who have sex with men and maybe people who have sex in some african regions. They should know to bag it up.
Can somebody please explain to me why it is that men who have sex with men are more likely to have STDs than hetrosexual people who have an equal amount of sex (in a time later than the 1970s)? I've heard this in enough otherwise-reasonable contexts that I believe, or at least suspect, that it isn't just bigoted nonsense, but the reason why continues to baffle the everloving hell out of me.
vvn wrote:Nepene wrote:...
For me to preserve my opinion of you, you treated them in a respectful manner before and after and didn't violate any agreements or covenants during the act, and were generally honest about things that would have swayed them into sex, like your wealth and religion.
Wealth? So, if I say I'm rich, and you happily have sex with me, but I was lying, it becomes rape?
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